What is the first step of project planning Mcq?

Which of the following represents the correct order of stages within the project life cycle?

A. Planning, Defining, Executing, Closing

B. Closing, Planning, Defining, Executing

C. Defining, Planning, Executing, Closing

D. Executing, Defining, Planning, Closing

E. Planning, Defining, Closing, Executing

Which of the following is the correct order for the strategic management process?

A. Strategies, mission, objectives, projects

B. Objectives, projects, mission, strategies

C. Mission, strategies, objectives, projects

D. Objectives, mission, strategies, projects

E. Projects, mission, strategies, objectives

Which are the three different matrix systems discussed in the text?

A. Functional, Weak, Strong

B. Balanced, Functional, Projectized

C. Weak, Strong, Balanced

D. Neutral, Weak, Strong

E. Functional, Neutral, Projectized

The first step of project scope definition is to 

A. Analyze the strategic plan

B. Analyze the current budget plan

C. Meet with team members

D. Select team members

E. Define the overall objective to meet the customer's needs

Answer: Define the overall objective to meet the customer's needs

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Project Management Multiple Choice Questions

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements”.

a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories

Answer: d skills, tools

2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify the project scope by his project client?

a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.

Answer: d Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables

3. What is the first step in project planning?

a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer: a Establish the objectives and scope

4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations. Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path

Answer: c Control chart

5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Answer: d Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer: e initiation

7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.

Answer: b Find opportunities for collaborative project management

8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing work and tasks require different sets of skills?

a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and skills of the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the project and are concerned only with the strategy

Answer: b Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary

9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members compete for control at which stage?

a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning

Answer: b Storming

10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project scheduling and project cost analysis

Answer: c assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project managers.

11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?

a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea

Answer: d When innovation is required

12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that work?

a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation

Answer: d Delegation

13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and, just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?

a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document

Ans – e. Scope document

14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years. When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?

a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors

Answer: b Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary

15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk.

a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general

Answer: b a positive

16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always represents high grade.

Answer: c Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case

17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:

a. decide how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements. c. prepare for the template to monitor project progress.
d. estimate the entire project budget.
e. learn how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.

Answer: b start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete the project charter?

a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship. d. Gather promises from the key project players.
e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.

a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer: b start-up

20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as which of the following?

a. Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate

Answer: c Conceptual estimate

21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

a. Analyze the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.

Answer: c Identify potential project risks

22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget?

A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Answer: a Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have been avoided.

Answer: a risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project purpose is true?

a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on the duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are often instructed to refrain from expressing skepticism.

Answer: b Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.

25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will be accomplished by the end of the project?

a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone schedule
d. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure

Answer: a Scope of work (SOW)

26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix environment in order to achieve project goals?

a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill

Answer: b Influencing

27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?

a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company

Answer: c The project team

28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of risk. According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?

a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan

Answer: d WBS

29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and requires a cost-benefit analysis?

a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management

Answer: d Six Sigma

30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?

a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.

Answer: b Archives are complete.

31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of the following best explains this situation?

a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will probably fire her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira should not worry about risk Y.

Answer: b This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert advised his team to do which of the following?

a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones

Answer: b Create WBS

33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric, has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project success. This is because:

a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.

Answer: b Eric has no or little authority.

34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change, some issues with the project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha and Felix, are arguing their solutions to the project problems. They cannot convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative impact on the project’s progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice for Jack to manage this conflict?

a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.

Answer: a Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.

35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to look at?

a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents

Answer: c Project charter

36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual that can be checked against observable facts?

a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence

Answer: a Objective credibility

37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project management process group is expected to be lowest?

a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning

Answer: d Closing

38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?
a. 80%

b. 53%

c. 45%

d. 35%

Answer: a 80%

39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in order to consider John’s project a success?

a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.

Answer: c John’s client has paid off the project.

40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how should Neel proceed?

a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.

Answer: a Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member

41. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of the following issues EXCEPT:

a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.

Answer: d code of conduct for the team members working on the project

42. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

43. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Answer: b Cost performance baseline

44. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more information is known, the project team can develop a:

a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Answer: c rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

45. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project, budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What is the estimate at completion value for this project?

a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000

Answer: d $875,000

46. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Answer: e Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

47. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency. Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this scenario?

a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

Answer: a No project team ground rules were set up.

48. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing detail in each layer.

a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram

Answer: a layered description

49. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Answer: a Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

50. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.

a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk

Answer: e initiation, risk

51. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

Answer: e Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

52. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.

a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Answer: b achievement

53. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is included?

a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Answer: c Create a WBS

54. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.

a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer: b start-up

55. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do which of the following?

a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.

Answer: c Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.

56. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Answer: d Risks are identified with each major group of activities

57. What is the first step in project planning?

a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer: a Establish the objectives and scope.

58. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer: e initiation

59. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with the description of this concept?

a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle

Answer: b Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

60. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Answer: d Developing role clarification on projects

61. Which of the following is true about management meetings?

a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

Answer: e They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

62. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach to resolve conflict.

a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Answer: d forcing

63. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside group.

a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit

Answer: e quality audit

64. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation process?

a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.

Answer: a It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

65. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Answer: b They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

66. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Answer: b key milestones.

67. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?

a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers

Answer: b Start-to-finish

68. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.

Answer: a Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.

69. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Answer: d Project managers are goal oriented.

70. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?

a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Answer: d Projectized organization

71. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning and execution processes is called the:

a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Answer: b change management process

72. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?

a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.

Answer: a Benefits are greater than the costs.

73. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met for the project to finish on time?

a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule

Answer: e Milestone schedule

74. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk

Answer: d There are no risk-free projects.

75. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Answer: b To reflect new information

76. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to meet the project completion date.

a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Answer: d compressed

77. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project means which of the following?

a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk

Answer: b An opportunity that must be explored

78. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?

a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Answer: b Attribution of benevolence

79. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the cumulative earned value. What does this mean?

a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.

d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.

Answer: a SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

80. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.

a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Answer: c project logic diagram

Project Management MCQs

1. Purchase ___ describes a product in terms of its design characteristics which includes dimensions, weight, shape, size, surface finish, physical and chemical properties, and performance.
Answer: Specification

2. The purchase ___ is signed by the prescribed authority.
Answer: Indent

3. Purchase order becomes a legal contract only after it has been accepted by the vendor or any of his authorised agents.
Answer: True

4. Follow-up is a corrective measure that seeks to foresee the problem and preempt late delivery. (True/False)
Answer: False

5. Follow-up includes internal follow-up with departments like the store, finance, inspection, and project groups and external follow-up with ___.
Answer: Suppliers

6. The ___ conditions include purchase order no., name and address of the supplier, delivery address of the goods, description of the goods, product specifications, quantity, etc.
Answer: Specific

7. Contract planning should be done at the project planning stage.
Answer: False

8. Fixed price applies to unstable labour market conditions and uncertain specifications and production schedule.
Answer: False

9. ___ of contract may be done due to default by the vendor in failing to perform as agreed in contract while making deliveries, the convenience of the buyers, or mutual consent.
Answer: Cancellation

10. The process of contract planning includes the preparation of ___ pl
Answer: Resource

11. ___ is generally applicable under stable market conditions and in the case of firm specifications and production schedule.
Answer: Fixed price

12. ___ includes monitoring the progress of manufacturing of equipment, it’s quality, packaging, and associated documentation.
Answer: Order fulfillment

13. ___ .includes identifying the required number of suppliers out of the possible ones.
Answer: Shortlist suppliers

14. A procurement process starts with the ___ of required material and types of equipment.
Answer: Identification

15. An efficient project management can avoid many of these problems by proper planning and control of procurement and efficient ___ materials management.
Answer: Post-procurement

16. ___ performance measurement is an ongoing process that involves monitoring and reporting project progress with respect to predetermined objectives.
Answer: Pre-established

17. ___ consists of web space over Internet/intranet/extranet, shared by an authorised group of users to discuss their common objective.
Answer: Wiki

18. ___ are age old methods to communicate project information in many organisations.
Answer: Written reports

19. Communication is the process by which information is exchanged between individuals through a common system of symbols, signs, or behaviour.
Answer: True

20. The PMIS should support the full range of the life cycle including project analysis and post-project review. (True/false)
Answer: True

21. Only irrelevant information should be a part of PMIS.
Answer: False

22. Enterprise guidance and project ___ should be a part of PMIS.
Answer: Background information

23. ___ include priorities in running different applications and the security measures to achieve optimal and secure operations of the system.
Answer: Procedures

24. Hardware also includes communication equipment that facilitates fast transmission and reception of the text, pictures, sound, and animation in the form of electronic data.
Answer: True

25. Performance measurement is a part of the ___ process.
Answer: Strategic planning

26. Productivity is calculated by adding the value added by the product or service by the value of labour and capital cost.
Answer: False

27. The measurement of performance is a tool that provides qualitative information about products, services, and the processes that produce them.
Answer: False

28. Productivity is always a relative measure and expressed as the ratio of ___ to inputs.
Answer: Net outputs

29. If the productivity is measured for the total enterprise, it is termed as ___ productivity.
Answer: Total factor

30. When productivity is measured for each factor, it is termed as ___ productivity.
Answer: Partial factor

31. Performance coefficient of productivity can be measured in financial as well as physical terms.
Answer: True

32. ___ is an important tool for the assessment of a system or service according to the measurements specified
Answer: Performance evaluation

33. Projects are generally evaluated in terms of ___ incurred.
Answer: Capital expenditures

34. In management ___ of any service, process or activity typically refers to “determining its worth”.
Answer: Evaluation

35. ___ involves a comparison of the actual cost incurred on the project with the budgeted cost of the project for a given time period to determine the variants.
Answer: Variance analysis

36. ACC represents the actual cost incurred for accomplishing the work performed during a particular time period.
Answer: False

37. ACWP represents the actual cost incurred for accomplishing the work performed during a particular time period.
Answer: True

38. ___ represents the estimate for the additional cost required for completing the project.
Answer: ACC

39. The ___ is an integral part of project management and is a necessary task of the project manager.
Answer: Control

40. ___ is a list prepared separately for each agency after the resource scheduling process.
Answer: Work-to list

41. The ___ phase is the last phase of any project.
Answer: Project close-out

42. A PIR can be conducted as a formal audit or as a workshop involving the project ___
Answer: Participants

43. Work-to list is usually prepared to cover only a few weeks ahead.
Answer: True

44. ___ networks highlight which tasks are critical for a project to stay on schedule and which can slide without affecting the completion date of the project.
Answer: Critical path

45. ___ is the final network that has been arrived at after the resource rescheduling process, satisfying resource constraints and shows all activities.
Answer: Detailed network

46. Two common methods to evaluate the performance objectives are variance analysis and the ___ method.
Answer: Earned value

47. The ___ is a useful tool that allows the calculations of cost and schedule performance measures including cost variance, schedule variance, cost and time over-runs for a project.
Answer: Earned Value Method (EVM)

48. Frequency of monitoring depends on nature, duration, and importance of projects and stakeholders need. (True/False)
Answer: True

49. Schedule Variance = Plan time – actual time.
Answer: True

50. The variance report may be presented in tabular form or ___ form.
Answer: Graphical

51. The ___ is an estimate of the future based on current progress and other factors.
Answer: Forecast

52. The report is circulated to all concerned and discussed in a ___
Answer: Review meeting

53. On completion of the project, all resources – materials, equipment, and people are to be released from the project. (True/False)
Answer: True

54. The final Project Report (PR) should be written by a professional.
Answer: False

55. The project manager should ensure that the people are released in a fair and proper manner.
Answer: True

56. The decision of project termination affects all the ___ of the project and can put some negative impact on the organisation’s growth.
Answer: Stakeholders

57. There should be a clear ___ for project termination, and it should be communicated to all the stakeholders.
Answer: Strategy

58. There should be periodical ___ with the control board before taking the decision.
Answer: Review meetings

59. The ___ of project success and termination should be clear and communicated to every stakeholder.
Answer: Criteria

60. In case the project has to be terminated, there should be a clear commitment of the control board and high-level management towards the project management team in order to enable the team to ___ the project closure procedures.
Answer: Follow

61. Traditionally project follow-up stage is considered as a part of the project ___ phase.
Answer: Completion

62. After delivery or completion of the project, the ___ has to be evaluated.
Answer: Staff performance

63. ___ projects often have low visibility of benefits but very high costs, and also very high stress and risk levels too.
Answer: ICT (Information and Communications Technology)

64. The project activities like drawings cannot be performed by using project management software. (True/False)
Answer: False

65. The project management software package can be handled with minimum training. (True/False)
Answer: True

66. The price of PC-based software is under ___ which is affordable for an organisation.
Answer: $500

67. Resource allocation problem is concerned with ___ activities in such a way so as to find the shortest project schedule.
Answer: Scheduling

68. The process of producing a fresh set of schedule is known as___.
Answer: Updating

69. ___ allows the user to view the information in the desired order, such as pay rates from highest to lowest or in alphabetical order.
Answer: Sorting

70. ___ enables the user to select only certain data that meet some specified criteria.
Answer: Filtering

71. Most software allows a single level of sorting.
Answer: False

72. ___ is a tool for examining and scheduling more complex projects.
Answer: Gantt charts

73. When a project is underway, Gantt Charts helps to monitor whether the project is on schedule or not.
Answer: True

1. The ___, also referred to as the project graph, shows the activities and events of the project and their logical relationships.
Answer: Network diagram

2. ___ must be so defined that they are distinct, logically uniform tasks for which time and resource requirement can be estimated.
Answer: Activities

3. The ___ begins with the initial event, marking the beginning of the project, and proceeds forward till the end event is reached.
Answer: Forward method

4. The ___ begins with the end event and works backwards till the beginning event is reached.
Answer: Backward method

5. The pessimistic time, to, is the time required if no hurdles or complications arise.
Answer: False

6. The optimistic time, tp, is the time required if unusual complications and, or unforeseen difficulties arise.
Answer: False

7. Time estimates should be obtained by the PERT planner from persons who are responsible for estimation.
Answer: True

8. The ___ of an event refers to the time when the event can be completed at the earliest.
Answer: EOT

9. The ___ for various events is obtained by working backwards from the end event. This procedure is known as the backward pass.
Answer: LOT

10. The ___ for an event is the difference between its LOT and EOT.
Answer: Slack

11. Variability in PERT analysis is measured by variance or its square root and standard deviation.
Answer: True

12. Standard deviation is obtained by squaring variance.
Answer: False

13. CPM analysis is on variations in activity times as a result of changes in ___.
Answer: Resource assignments

14. ___ seeks to examine the consequences of crashing on total cost (direct cost plus indirect cost).
Answer: CPM analysis

15. To provide a vehicle for ___ and control of projects, the network cost system was developed.
Answer: Cost planning

16. PERT and CPM analysis largely overlooks the ___ which is usually as important as the time aspect and sometimes even more.
Answer: Cost aspect

26. The change process is a one-time process; it will never continue.
Answer: False

17. Project managers have to relax to maintain the momentum of project execution.
Answer: False

18. Project managers should explain to the team members the need for change.
Answer: True

19. The term ___ refers to fixing the available resources to the prioritised project activities.
Answer: Resource allocation

20. In ___ the resources are adjusted/compromised so that they are applied uniformly without any delays on the scheduled time.
Answer: Resource levelling

21. Scheduling means the process of deciding how to arrange resources between varieties of possible activities and tasks.
Answer: True

22. Backward scheduling can be defined as the planning of tasks from the date resources become available to determine the shipping date or the due date.
Answer: False

23. Forward scheduling is planning the tasks from the due date or required by date to determine the start date and/or any changes in the capacity required.
Answer: False

24. The ___ describes the business need, justification, requirements, and current boundaries for the project.
Answer: Project scope statement

25. ___ estimating involves determining the availability and quantities required of staff, equipment, and material needed to perform scheduled activities.
Answer: Activity resource

26. ___ means using the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
Answer: Analogous cost estimating

27. Payback period is defined as the length of time required to recover the original investment on the project through cash flows earned.
Answer: True

28. The internal rate of return is also called the accounting rate of return.
Answer: False

29. The average rate of return of a project is the discount rate that makes the net present value equal to zero.
Answer: False

30. Risk communication and risk ___ are essential factors for all human decision making.
Answer: Perception

31. Project risk is a function of two components: likelihood and___.
Answer: Consequence

32. Quality characteristics such as performance, functionality, suitability, reliability, and consistency are commonly used to measure the ___.
Answer: Project deliverables

33. The unsystematic risk affects the entire market.
Answer: False

34. Financial risk refers to the variability of the income to the equity capital due to the debt capital.
Answer: True

35. ___ is a discipline for dealing with the possibility that some future event will cause harm.
Answer: Risk management

36. ___ needs to be approved by the appropriate level of management.
Answer: Risk mitigation

37. The probability of project risk depends on the project life cycle.
Answer: True

38. The impact of risks is higher in the initial stages of a project life cycle.
Answer: False

39. The probability of risks is less in the initial phases in comparison to closing phases.
Answer: False

40. Proper risk management can increase the productivity and efficiency of the project team.
Answer: True

41. The process of ___ includes not only assessment as to the probability of occurrence but also the assessment as to the impending severity of loss if the risk materialises.
Answer: Risk appraisal

42. After risks identification and assessment, one must apply various risk management techniques such as risk avoidance, risk reduction, ___ and risk transfer etc.
Answer: Risk-retention

43. Business risks are ongoing risks that are best handled by the business.
Answer: True

44. Generic risks are risks to all projects.
Answer: True

45. The checklist is developed based on ___.
Answer: Past experience

46. If the probability is high, and impact is low, it is a ___ risk.
Answer: Medium

47. If the impact is high, and probability low, it is ___ risk
Answer: High

48. Risk avoidance involves the methods that reduce the severity of loss from occurring.
Answer: False

49. Risk retention is a viable strategy for small risks where the cost of insuring against the risk would be greater over time than the total losses sustained.
Answer: True

50. Quality begins with designing a product as per customer specifications ___.
Answer: Specification

51. A ___ consists of people, equipment, and procedure to collect, process, store, combine, and communicate the needed information to users (stakeholders) for carrying out project management functions.
Answer: PMIS

52. A ___ consists of a set of sub-systems/components that work together to achieve a common goal.
Answer: System

53. The attributes associated with a product should be internally ___.
Answer: Consistent

54. The quality associated with a product often decreases with the dependability of the product and customer experience.
Answer: False

55. Today, quality is considered an ‘order qualifying’ and not an ‘order winning’ attribute of the product or service.
Answer: True

56. ___ represents economic worth, practical utility and availability for both the customer and the company that creates the product or service.
Answer: ‘Value’

57. Quality Control (QC) means all the planned and systematic activities implemented within the quality system to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
Answer: False

58. Quality assurance is a system of routine technical activities, to measure and control the quality of the project as it is being developed.
Answer: False

59. ___ refers to the overall intentions and direction of an organisation pertaining to quality, as formally expressed by top management.
Answer: Quality policy

60. Prior to the development of the ISO 9000 series, the activities described under quality planning were widely included as part of ___.
Answer: Quality assurance

61. ___ is the systematic application of recognised techniques.
Answer: Value engineering

62. ___ is the total sum of money spent for materials, labour, overheads, profit, etc to produce any product.
Answer: Cost

63. ___ is what the customer thinks the product is worth to meet his minimum specific requirements.
Answer: Value

64. A product is considered to have value if it has appropriate ___ and cost.
Answer: Performance

65. Procurement of material and equipment accounts for over 80% of the project cost.
Answer: False

66. Under data processing, data is transformed into ___ using mathematical, statistical, or other tools.
Answer: Information

67. A ___ may be conducted to identify the specific information requirements of stakeholders related to the various decision area in a project.
Answer: Survey

68. Data collected from records is known as primary data.
Answer: False

69. Blog is a whiteboard or webspace over the Internet.
Answer: True

70. In ___ meetings, all participants sit in a room and participate in the agenda.
Answer: Face-to-face

Project Management Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download

What is the first step of project planning?

Step 1: Identify and meet with stakeholders Make sure you identify all stakeholders and keep their interests in mind when creating your project plan. Meet with the project sponsors and key stakeholders to discuss their needs and project expectations, and establish a scope baseline, budget, and timeline.

What is the first step in project planning 1 marks?

The project initiation phase is the first stage of turning an abstract idea into a meaningful goal. In this stage, you need to develop a business case and define the project on a broad level. In order to do that, you have to determine the need for the project and create a project charter.

Which is the first stage in the project management model Mcq?

Q.
Which is the first stage in the project management model?
B.
Project definition
C.
Project control
D.
Project planning
Answer» a. Understanding the project environment
Which is the first stage in the project management model? - McqMatemcqmate.com › discussion › which-is-the-first-stage-in-the-project-manage...null

Is the first step in project management answer?

The first phase of the project management life cycle is project initiation. This is where the project's value and feasibility are measured.